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 FAQs
Q.  Blind Studies
Has psychoanalysis been proven effective in blind studies. Life is always about results. How does the APsaA prove psychoanalysis' results, as a legitimate treatment? (A related question: Is psychoanalysis a science? That is to say: Does it pretend to universality? Would it produce (at least theoretically) reproducible results, verifiable by another psychoanalyst. Said differently: would the psychoanalysis of a patient, performed with two different psychoanalysts, lead to roughly the same 'end results'? (while rereading my second question, I realize that there is no answer to it, because the psychoanalysis cannot be performed twice) However, is there a 'guess' there?
Q. 

Neuroscience and Psychoanalysis
I am a student in Australia with a hypothetical question regarding Freud's theories of personality. Suppose a man is involved in an accident that results in damage to the frontal lobe of his brain, and now demonstrates different traits such as diminished patience. How would Freud go about explaining such a change in behavior considering he believed personality to be set by childhood- has the man's personality changed or does is have more to do with the brain damage causing certain behavior to manifest differently?

Q.  Does Psychoanalysis Cure?
I would like to know if psychoanalysis is effective in curing the symptoms or does it only find the cause of the "symptoms"?
Q.  Is Psychoanalysis Science?
I'm a third year sociology student who has been given this question to ponder: 'Is psychoanalysis anything more than a form of religious theodicy?' Do you have any thoughts and any suggestions for obtaining further information?

 
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